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A Realistic Counterclaim

A Realistic Counterclaim To A Colorful Response

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I first read Professor James R. White's book, The King James Only Controversy, in Spring of 1995. Shortly after my examination of it, I felt compelled to respond and did so in the form of a very brief critique. I then mailed a copy of the critique to all living parties mentioned in my review. Within a few weeks I received an austere letter from Brother White stating in great detail how I had misrepresented him and his book. At that time I replied, answering his criticisms point by point.

Recently, Brother White has felt obliged to again respond to my critique and has done so on his web site with an article entitled, A Colorful Response to The King James Only Controversy Falls WAY Short. Since I have already responded to Brother White's first rebuttal, I fail to see the need of doing so again. It seems to me more advantageous to respond to issues and not to the "he-said-I-said-he-said" approach often employed in these types of argumentations. Therefore I suggest the following. If you have not read Professor White's book, please do so; it does a wonderful job of reflecting the position held by the majority of modern scholars. Next, read my critique of his book. Then, if you have any questions or comments, please write us. Both of us may be reached at our e-mail addresses and his web site is linked at the top of my Debate Page .

There are, however, a few issues raised in his recent rebuttal which are worthy of further discussion. 1) The definition of "believing the King James Bible." 2) The KJV translators' statement concerning the "very meanest translation of the Bible in English." 3) The defense of Biblical preservation by using Psalm 12:7. 4) The unfounded accusation of Christians being "cultists." 5) The call by Brother White for me to withdraw my critique from circulation.

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1). BELIEVING THE KING JAMES BIBLE.
In my critique I state that it would take a volume to answer all of Brother White's objections to the King James Bible and those who believe it. Professor White quotes me and then makes the following statement:

"I believe the King James Bible---I use it when witnessing to Mormons all the time. Obviously, what Dr. Holland should say is, 'White's objections to King James Onlyism and those who promote this viewpoint.' As to all my criticisms being addressed in the writings of 'those White opposes,' this simply isn't the case."

Although much could be said about the later part of this statement, I wish only to concern myself with the former: namely, White's assertion that he believes the King James Bible. Immediately before this, he sets the context of his belief in the KJV by stating that "it is the Word of God, just as the NASB or NIV is rightly called 'the Word of God.'"

Here we have a blatant contrast in the meaning of words. This illustrates the differences in approach and strikes at the very heart of this issue. When I say that I believe the King James Bible, I mean that I have complete confidence in it as the very Word of God. I trust it without making exception. The 1975 Merriam-Webster Dictionary defines the word believe as "(to) accept trustfully and on faith" and to "consider (it) to be true." It means to "have a firm conviction as to the reality" of something or someone. My firm conviction is that the King James Bible is the Word of God. Since I do not believe the Word of God has error in it, I believe the KJV is inerrant.

When James White says he believes the King James Bible, he means it in a general sense of the word. He does not have a firm conviction as to the reality of the King James Bible. He believes it to be the Word of God ONLY when it agrees with what he considers is the correct Greek reading. Much like the Mormon to whom he spends time witnessing, Brother White believes the KJV to be the Word of God, ". . . as far as it is translated correctly" (the 8th Article of Faith of the Mormon Church).

The following should illustrate the point. Below are several verses from the KJV which scholarship calls into question. I believe the King James Bible in each of these verses. In fact, I believe it in all of its verses. Brother White does not believe his King James Bible concerning these passages. In each case I have provided a page reference from Professor White's book, The King James Only Controversy.

Passage: Holland/White and KJV:

Matt. 6:13 Yes/No (pp. 252-253)
Mk. 1:2-3 Yes/No (pp. 254-255)
Mk. 6:20 Yes/No (pp. 224-225)
Mk. 16:9-20 Yes/No (pp. 255-257)
Lk. 2:22 Yes/No (pp. 68, 88)
Jn. 1:18 Yes/No (pp. 198-200)
Jn. 5:4 Yes/No (p. 156)
Jn. 7:53-8:11 Yes/No (p. 262)
Acts 5:30 Yes/No (pp.225-226)
Acts 8:37 Yes/No (pp. 66, 154)
Acts 12:4 Yes/No (pp. 233-234)
Acts 19:2 Yes/No (p. 240)
Rom. 9:5 Yes/No (pp. 196-197)
2 Cor. 2:17 Yes/No (pp. 113-114)
Eph. 3:9 Yes/No (pp. 179-180)
Eph. 3:14 Yes/No (p. 265)
2 Tim. 2:15 Yes/No (pp. 140-141)
Heb. 10:23 Yes/No (p. 226)
1 Jn. 5:7 Yes/No (pp. 60-62)
Rev. 16:5 Yes/No (p. 63)
Rev. 22:19 Yes/No (p. 66)

These are but a few of the many passages where Brother White does not believe the KJV. In each case, I believe the KJV to be correct and modern versions to be in error. Since I believe the word of God is inerrant, the best I can say regarding modern versions is that they contain the word of God. If I called them the word of God (which has no error) and then stated they were in error in a certain place, I would feel as if I were lying when I called them the word of God.

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2). THE CITATION FROM THE KJV TRANSLATORS.
"Now to the latter we answer; that we do not deny, nay we affirm and avow, that the very meanest translation of the Bible in English, set forth by men of our profession, (for we have seen none of theirs of the whole Bible as yet) containeth the word of God, nay, is the word of God."

Both Brother White and I cited the above excerpt from the original preface to the Authorized Version. After reproducing this quotation, Brother White makes the following statement:

"To what are they referring? To the KJV? No, to 'the very meanest translation of the Bible in English.' Even the 'meanest' translation 'containeth the word of God, nay, is the word of God.' Such is exactly opposite the view of most KJV Only advocates. Will Dr. Holland call my NASB the Word of God? The KJV translators would."

Will I? No. Would they? It is impossible to dogmatically say since we do not
have any of them here. But, I sincerely doubt that they would have. The quote from the KJV translators is not a blanket support calling each and every translation the word of God. The statement is clarified with a limitation. They only affirmed and avowed as the word of God translations which were, "set forth by men of our profession." These translations were Tyndale's New Testament, the Great Bible, Coverdale's Bible, the Geneva Bible, and the Bishops' Bible. The KJV translators were contrasting the early English Protestant Bibles with the Latin Vulgate and English Rheims New Testament used by the Catholic Church.

The English word "meanest" does not refer to poor or incorrect translations. The word is Saxon based and means "common." At that time, the Catholic Church limited the translation of the Bible into English, preferring for it to remain in Latin. Finally, in 1582, the Catholic Church produced the Rheims English version of the New Testament. The KJV translators did not call this version "the word of God." In fact, in the proceeding paragraph, the translators state, "and all is sound for substance, in one or other of our editions, and the worst of ours far better than their authentic vulgar." The context of the quotation reveals what they called "the word of God" were Protestant versions already printed, and objected to by the Catholic Church. These Protestant versions were all based on the Traditional Greek text, just as the King James Bible is.

Furthermore, to argue what the KJV translators would or would not say about a translation that came into being 350 years after their death is fallacious. I could, for example, just as dogmatically declare that the KJV translators would call the NASV a "vulgar" corruption. However, my declaration would be meaningless. Likewise, so is the assertion that the KJV translators would call the NASB the word of God.

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3) THE CORRECT RENDERING OF PSALM 12:6-7.
The next point I wish to contend concerns the translation of Psalm 12:6-7. Professor White devotes several pages to show why he does not believe the King James Bible in regard to its translation of this passage. His contention is that the Hebrew text of Psalm 12:7 should be translated as "preserve him" instead of "preserve them." After citing a Hebrew text, Brother White writes:

"But most importantly, the suffix attached to the word 'preserve' is a masculine singular . . . while the term 'words' in 'words of the LORD' in verse 6 is a feminine plural. Hence, whatever is 'preserved' in verse 7 is not the 'words' of verse 6, as you cannot match a masculine singular to a feminine plural. Yet, Dr. Holland's entire interpretation demands that this passage say that it is the words of the LORD that are preserved in verse 7, yet the grammar of the passage does not allow this interpretation."

Brother White is mistaken. It is possible to match masculine and feminine nouns in Hebrew. Hebrew has only two genders, masculine and feminine (the feminine is also used for neuter nouns). Further, the Hebrew language will allow you to mix the singular with the plural. White also makes the following comment:

"But aside from the textual issue, we point out that 'them' is not the reading of either the Greek or Hebrew manuscripts. It is possible that the KJV translators took the third person masculine singular suffix, literally translated as "him" (NASB), as a 'collective,' and rendered it 'them.' Or, it is possible the translator(s) simply erred and followed the third person masculine plural of the preceding verb."

He is correct in stating the Hebrew third person masculine singular suffix can be taken as a collective. This is common in Hebrew. If, however, the King James translators "erred," as suggested by Professor White, they were not at all alone. Several other English translations render the phrase as "preserve them." The Geneva Bible (1587 edition) translates the Hebrew text as "preserve them." Likewise, modern versions such as the RV, ASV, Darby, and NKJV translate the text as "preserve them." If the KJV translators simply "erred" we must conclude that the translators of these other versions made the very same mistake (something which seems rather unlikely). Or, we can conclude that there is more than one way to translate the verse.

Most modern versions, however, take a different route than either the KJV or the NASV. Instead of "them" or "him" they translate the phrase as "preserve (or protect) us." Such is the reading of the NIV, RSV, NRSV, and NEV (this is also the reading found in Wycliffe's 14th century version and Matthew's Bible of 1540). Although this reading would not support the KJV, it likewise does not support the reading "preserve him." So, why the difference? The answer is supplied by Adam Clarke in his six volume commentary on the Bible. Clarke writes of Psalm 12:7: "Instead of the pronoun 'them' in these clauses, several MSS., with the Septuagint, the Vulgate, and the Arabic, have 'us.'" Therefore, the difference deals with a textual variance found within the Hebrew manuscripts and some Old Testament translations. Regarding the Hebrew text, the KJV was based on the text of Jacob ben Chayyim. Modern versions are usually based on the Hebrew text from the family of ben Asher and supported with the Greek Septuagint. This explains the difference between the "us" and "them." But why the difference between "them" and "him"?

The King James translators were not ignorant of this difference. The Great Bible of 1540 reads, "Thou shalt kepe them (O Lorde) thou shalt preserue hym from thys generacyo for euer." As did the 1560 edition of the Geneva Bible. More importantly, the marginal note at Psalm 12:7 in the original KJV reads, "Heb(rew) 'him' i.e. every one of them." Therefore, the translators of the KJV were aware of the translational differences concerning this verse. What they understood is that the Hebrew allows the text to be rendered into English in more than one way. Nor are they alone in this understanding.

The International Critical Commentary notes the textual and grammatical differences regarding this verse. The commentators state that both renderings are most likely interpretations because the original Hebrew lacked verb suffixes. Therefore, just as the early Greek writings did not have punctuation, the early Hebrew did not have verb suffixes to determine if it should be "them," "him," or "us." Additionally, while the Septuagint used the Greek personal pronoun hemas (us), the Greek versions of Aquila and Theodotian used the Greek personal pronoun autous (them), and thus agreed with the Hebrew text referring "to the divine words" (Dr. Charles and Emilie Briggs, T. & T. Clark Publishers, pp. 97-99).

Reformer John Calvin agrees with Professor White as to the phrasing of this verse, but disagrees with his assertion that the singular and plural cannot be mixed together in Hebrew grammar. Calvin writes:

"With respect to his changing the number, (for, he says first, Thou wilt keep them, and, next, Thou wilt preserve him,) it is a thing quite common in Hebrew, and the sense is not thereby rendered ambiguous. These two sentences, therefore, Thou wilt keep them, and Thou wilt preserve him, signify the same thing . . . " (Calvin's Commentary on Psalms, Eerdmans Publishing, p. 179).

Calvin is correct concerning his understanding of Hebrew. Gesenius' Hebrew Grammar notes:

"As in other languages, so also in Hebrew, the predicate in general conforms to the subject in gender and number (even when it is a pronoun . . .). There are, however, numerous exceptions to this fundamental rule. These are due partly to the constructio ad sensum (where attention is paid to the meaning rather than to the grammatical form." (E. Kautzsch, ed., A. E. Cowley, trans., Clarendon Press, p. 462).

Therefore, as Calvin and others point out, grammar is not as important in Hebrew as meaning, thus the constructio ad sensum (construction by thoughts). This is especially true of Hebrew poetry (and even in English poetry I might add). In poetry, grammar takes a back seat to parallelism. With respect to the Masoretic Hebrew text, Dr. Peter Craigie justly points out that, "The two verbs of this verse. . . have 3 personal plural and 3 personal singular suffixes respectively." (Word Biblical Commentary, vol. 19, Word Books, p. 137). This allots the Hebrew text poetic parallelism.

Again, John Calvin fairly notes that the phrase in Psalm 12:7 may very well refer to the words of the Lord, at least the first part of the phrase, even though he himself did not see it this way. He writes:

"Some give this exposition of the passage, Thou wilt keep them, namely, thy words; but this does not seem to me to be suitable." (Calvin's Commentary on Psalms, pp. 178-179).

John Wesley, on the other hand, thought it to be very suitable for him. Not only was Wesley a preacher and a theologian; he was also a grammarian, having written grammar books for English, Greek, Latin, French, and Hebrew. Regarding Psalm 12:7, Wesley writes:


"Thou shalt keep them -- Thy words or promises: these thou wilt observe and keep, both now, and from this generation for ever." (John Wesley's Notes On the Bible, presented by Sage Digital Library, vols. 3 and 4, 1996 edition).

Dr. G. Campbell Morgan joins John Wesley in sounding like "KJV Only advocates" (which they were not) in writing:

"The psalmist breaks out into praise of the purity of His words, and declares that Jehovah will 'keep them,' and 'preserve them.' The 'them' here refers to the words. There is no promise made of widespread revival or renewal. It is the salvation of a remnant and the preservation of His own words which Jehovah promises." (Notes on the Psalms, Revell, p.32).

From all this we understand that the original Hebrew did not use verb suffixes, that Hebrew text differ when suffixes are added, and that even if the suffixes are the same they can be translated as singular or plural (as recognized by the KJV translators, as well as other translators and scholars). Therefore, to conclude this verse to be in error reflects an unfounded antipathy.

Having stated all of this, White's argument becomes somewhat moot for the simple reason that there are many other verses in the Bible which teach Biblical preservation. While Psalm 12:6-7 does a wonderful job of clearly presenting the truths of Biblical preservation, it is not the only passage to do so. During our public debate I provided Brother White with a list of several other verses which proclaim the same thing. These verses were ignored by Professor White. Instead he kept asking the same question regarding Psalm 12:7. Brother James has repeatedly stated that he believes in Biblical preservation. Taking him at his word, I have but one question for him (one I certainly hope that he will answer):

Brother James; since you do not believe Psalm 12:6-7 teaches Biblical preservation, and yet you believe in Biblical preservation, what verse do you use to support your belief in Biblical preservation?

It seems to me that instead of disproving a verse which supports a doctrine he says he believes, he would do better if he would provide Biblical support for his own teaching. The real truth is that Professor White believes in Biblical preservation like he believes the King James Bible, in a general sense of the meaning. When push comes to shove, he does not believe the words of the Lord have all been preserved. In fact, he believes some sections are missing. This was a point I made during our debate, a point he failed to respond to. He claims that the tenacity of textual variants proves Biblical preservation, and that nothing has "disappear(ed)" or "fallen through the cracks." In fact, he claims that with all the textual variants found in the various manuscripts, "One of those variant readings is indeed the original. We are called to invest our energies in discovering which one it is." (White, The King James Only Controversy, p. 48).

However, when presented with the fact that liberal and conservative scholars believe that some things are missing, some things have disappeared and fallen through the cracks (such as 1 Samuel 13:1), Brother James offered no reply. When shown that he himself, like many modern textual scholars, believes the true ending of Mark's Gospel is missing, and that the long and short endings were added in the second century (as stated in the writings of Metzger, Aland, Ryrie, and the NIV Study Bible), he again offered no reply. The simple fact is that you cannot believe that any part of the text is forever missing and still claim that nothing has disappeared. Yet, this is exactly what Brother James and most conservative scholars believe. They believe in Biblical preservation without believing in Biblical preservation. They believe the King James Bible without believing the King James Bible. It is not unkind or unchristian to demand an accounting for such obvious self contradictions.

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4) "CULTISTS" IN THE CAMP:
This fourth point illustrates the double standard so often used in these types of arguments. I must begin by stating that I object to any born-again Christian calling another born-again Christian a cultist or any other unjustifiable name. One is not a cultist because he believes or does not believe the King James Bible. A cultist denies doctrines concerning Jesus Christ (such as His deity, blood atonement, and physical resurrection), Biblical salvation, and the Trinity. To apply this term to the redeemed seems careless. In my writings, I refrain from such name-calling in that I believe it sends the wrong message, focuses on persons and not the issue of Biblical preservation, and somehow lessens the proper uses of the term when applied to groups such as the Jehovah's Witnesses or Mormons.

In the conclusion of his rebuttal, Professor White challenges a statement of mine. He writes, "I would like to challenge Dr. Holland to produce the words 'cultist' in The King James Only Controversy regarding KJV Only advocates." I am not going to try and explain my original comments, as I believe the context will justify what I was saying. Nor am I going to respond to the challenge as given. But I will take a few moments and offer some quotations from Brother White which illustrate the meaning of double standard. In his book, Brother White states:


"Charges of blasphemy, heresy, and even stupidity fly thick from some elements of the KJV Only movement. Thankfully, not all who hold to this position engage in such name-calling, but sadly the movement as a whole is marked by this kind of invective. The willingness of individuals such as Peter Ruckman to dehumanize those who disagree with him through personal attack breeds an 'us verses them' mentality in those who buy into the KJV Only position." (p. V).

He is, of course, correct in viewing "charges of blasphemy, heresy, and even stupidity" as unproductive. Unfortunately, he is not consistent. In several letters to me (and, I might add, to others), Brother White has no fear in calling KJV Only advocates, such as Peter Ruckman, "heretics." Why is it wrong for Ruckman to use the term, but it is not wrong for James White? The following quote comes from a letter Brother James wrote to me.

"I could argue, and would argue, that Ruckman is more heretical than Metzger or Black. Ruckman is not orthodox on the Trinity, the deity of Christ, or the gospel itself. I have decried liberalism in all its forms, and have defended orthodoxy, in print, and in the media. To make the analogy fair, Dr. Holland, you'd have to show me where you, like Dr. Cloud, have publicly condemned the heresies and behavior of Peter Ruckman and his ilk. Have you done so? If so, I congratulate you. If not, my question would stand." (Downloaded from e-mail with America Online. Subj:Re: Adair & Ruckman; Date:96-12-21 21:14:52 EST; From:Orthopodeo; To:Logos1611).

I had asked Brother White the following question: "Are you somehow suggesting that Peter Ruckman does not believe in Biblical salvation of grace through faith based in the blood of Jesus Christ, or that he denies the Trinity and the deity of Christ?" He simply replied, "I am" (Ibid.).

I asked Professor White for any documentation where Ruckman denied either the Trinity or the Deity of Jesus Christ. So far, he has not produced any evidence for his claims. There are several other examples, but I think the above proves the point. It may be unkind to call individuals names, but I believe it is even worse to decry them for doing so while at the same time doing the very same thing.

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5). RETRACTING MY CRITIQUE.
Professor White concludes his rebuttal by asking me to withdraw my critique from circulation:

"The only people who will be convinced by Dr. Holland's arguments regarding The King James Only Controversy are those who have not fairly read the book. Those who have will find yet another example of the desperation of the KJV Only movement to provide any kind of response to the work. I call upon Dr. Holland to explain the many, many errors documented in this file, and to withdraw from circulation a work that does nothing whatsoever to add to the dialogue on the most important topic of Bible translation."

I will not withdraw either my critique, my lessons, or myself from this important dialogue. What he considers to be errors on my part were, for the most part, addressed in a letter to him when he first wrote to me concerning my critique a few years back. This response letter is still on file and available to any who wish to read it. If my little critique offers "nothing whatsoever" and will only convince "those who have not fairly read" his book, why is he so concerned about it? Perhaps because the critique does demonstrate a number of inconsistencies found in Brother James' book. More to the point, what about the "many, many errors" which I have documented that show The King James Only Controversy is historically and textually wrong? Will Professor White either correct these errors or withdraw his book from circulation? I doubt that he will.

Allow me to offer two examples. For almost two years now Brother White and I have debated a statement found on page 244 of his book. This concerns the Cum Privilegio. Because the evidence for his historical error, and later admission of it, is already documented on my web site in the debate section Cum Privilegio, I will not take to time to go over the matter again here. I would, however, ask the readers to examine the statements for themselves and determine if Brother White is correct or not. If not, will he change his statement?

My second example comes from our debate. On page 268 of his book, Brother White tries to show the inconsistency of the KJV translators regarding 2 Peter 1:1 and 2 Peter 1:11. He transliterates the Greek of both verses and states the following:

"1:1: tou theou hemon kai soteros Iesou Christou
1:11: tou kuriou hemon kai soteros Iesou Christou"

"Notice the exact one-to-one correspondence between these passages! The only difference is the substitution of "kuriou" for "theou". No one would question the translation of 'our Lord and Savior, Jesus Christ' at 1:11; why question the translation of 'our God and Savior, Jesus Christ' at 1:1? Consistency in translation demands that we not allow our personal prejudices to interfere with our rendering of God's Word."

What Brother White fails to note, which apparently he did not know, was that the Greek text which underlies the KJV does not read as presented by James White. The KJV was mainly based on Beza's Greek texts of 1589 and 1598. In both editions the Greek of verse one reads, "tou theou hemon kai soterros hemon Iesou Christou." The Greek word "hemon" (our) is used twice in Beza's text. Once the second "hemon" is introduced into the Greek text, the reading of the KJV is not only allowed, but becomes most likely. To present the KJV translators as being inconsistent by citing a Greek text not used by the translators is not fair. Granted, Brother White may not have known that this was the reading of Beza's text. However, he knows it now. Will he correct it or withdraw his book from circulation because of such errors? Again, I doubt it. The only response by Professor White regarding his error was to ask what textual support Beza had for producing the reading. However, textual support here is not the point. Misrepresenting the evidence is.

It will be interesting to see how my friend will respond. Perhaps if we can focus less on personalities and more on preservation something constructive will be accomplished. Brother White was gracious enough to state, "Dr. Holland strikes one as a kind, fair man in personal conversation." To which I would like to publicly thank him for the amiable words concerning my person. Likewise, it is my hope that the reader recognize that it is the view of James R. White that I differ with regarding the King James Bible, not the person of James R. White. He is a born-again child of God who has done a great deal in combatting the errors of Mormonism and the Roman Catholic Church. For these labors I applaud him and uphold him in my prayers. It is my desire that our friendship will grow and that we as Christian men will be able to discuss this issue regarding the KJV in an intelligent and Christ-like manner.

--Dr. Thomas Holland
Scriptura est vitae magistra

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