The book uses over-and-over again the fallacy of
"guilt by association." Numerous quotes
(whether accurate or not) are used to discredit certain men connected with
textual criticism and modern translation. Certainly
it is not that hard to understand that the textual debate and issues
have to do with manuscripts and fragments nearly 2,000 years old, the copyists
being unknown! It is ultimately irrelevant who is examining
the evidence if what is reported is accurate. It is quite easy to find numerous
strong defenders of historic Christianity who recognize the truth of the
evidence presented by men whose faith may be less than solid.
Most of the observations and arguments in the book can be easily answered
by a short examination of a concordance or commentary on specific texts of
Scripture. For example, the book uses the
worn-out argument that the
New International Version
[NIV] translation
(and others) are against the "blood of
Christ" because certain verses omit that
phrase. A simple examination of an NIV concordance would demonstrate
that the "blood" is mentioned
numerous times in that version. The issue has
nothing to do with the bias of translators
as we can easily examine the texts from which they did their translating
work.
The author argues that certain verses omit the word
"our" in connection with the Father,
supposedly because of a "conspiracy" to
support the "universal fatherhood of God" [page 60]. The text then cites
John 8:44 as a clear example of God not being the Father of all men, for
those to whom Christ was speaking were said to be of their father "the devil."
Amazingly(!), if the author had looked at John 8:44 in the NIV (or any other
legitimate translation), we would have found the same idea and words of the
KJV. If such a "conspiracy" existed, would not the instigators have eliminated
the clear and explicit passages rather than merely the word "our" in a few
passages (which does not necessarily exclude God from being the Father of
others)?
It should be our general practice to assume the integrity and sincerity
of an author when reading his/her book. In the case of
New Age Bible Versions, however, it is very
difficult to believe that an author who is of an educational level and
accomplishment as that boasted on the back of the book would produce
such a poor literary work [Note:
NONE of Riplinger's degrees are for
any form of biblical or textual studies
and yet in 1996,
"KJV-Only" Pastor
Jack Hyles of Indiana's Hyles-Anderson
College, honorarily
"Doctored" Ms.
Riplinger!].
I want to point out the basic framework we are defending. First, the
New Testament is preserved for us in thousands of manuscripts. These
range from small pieces of books to almost whole New Testaments.
There are differences between ALL the
manuscripts. Most of these are insignificant spelling changes,
word order differences, etc. There are numerous "minor" word differences,
however, such as one text reading "Jesus Christ" while another "Lord Jesus"
or some other variation. These are considered "minor" because they do not
change or alter any doctrine or interpretation.
Furthermore, there are no examples of manuscripts that are considered
seriously in textual criticism where a deliberate attempt has been
made to eliminate all references to "Christ" or "Lord," or any other term.
These are copyist errors or scribal additions. It is the purpose of the science
of textual criticism to examine these differences and attempt to determine
the original reading. There are numerous ways this is done which space forbids
us from discussing. The differences between the new versions in some readings
arise from discoveries in the last century of older new Testament manuscripts
that have affected the evidence behind certain texts. Very few of these are
of any consequence to doctrine, however, and the majority would not be detected
by very good Bible students as they change no meaning.
There have arisen two contrary positions with regard to the
manuscript evidence available. Speaking simplistically, one prefers the
"majority" of manuscript readings as the best, the other prefers the
"older" readings. Certainly, there are fewer older manuscripts to
examine but they consistently bear out a striking fact
the older manuscripts are typically shorter in their
readings than the newer! This, according to textual critics, is because of
the tendency of scribes to add explanatory words to the text rather than
delete them.
On the other hand, some say the older manuscripts represent a distorted
text that ultimately was not preserved through the greater part of church
history and therefore must be rejected. Let it be noted that
regardless of which position is taken, there remain numerous textual
variants with both of these text types. Gail Riplinger cites such authors
as Zane Hodges in her attempt to make the reader think that the Majority
text is so well-established that there are not questionable readings remaining
(page 469). If one examines the Greek New Testament that Hodges helped to
edit, however, he will find a sophisticated textual apparatus giving numerous
variations between the majority manuscripts. With some
'KJV-Only' advocates affirming God "preserved His perfect Word
in the Textus Receptus Greek New Testament"
used in production of the KJV, it is interesting to know that 6
different versions of the T.R.
[edited by Erasmus] were used by the KJV translators!
Riplinger presents the word-differences "as a
'New Age' conspiracy
designed to prepare the world for the Antichrist!"
...Really? Since when does the coming
Antichrist care about the thousands of Bible
translations produced by mankind or the millions of copies printed of
them they
ALL
reveal who
'HE'
is! As noted above, this
'theory' is
preposterous in light of the fact that the differences
come from manuscripts 1800 or more years old and the copyists are unknown!
A current
conspiracy
is simply out of the
question!
Furthermore, Ms. Riplinger has exaggerated her case and actually
DISTORTED the evidence she claims substantiates
her views some of the many examples:
|
1
| A chart on page 13 makes the general claim that the new
versions use the word "Lord" alone without
the name Jesus, thereby "dropping" the identity of Jehovah or Jesus. But
Acts 19:13, 20:24 and 35, 21:13, 28:31, Romans 1:4, 7, 5:1, 11, 21, 6:23,
7:25, 8:39, are only the beginning of a multitude of verses in the NIV, NASB,
and others using the name "Jesus" with
Lord and Christ.
|
2
| A chart on page 14 states that the KJV uses the proper
name "Jehovah" while the new versions
substitute "Lord" for it, supposedly to
depersonalize God [page 15]. This statement is
incredible in light of the fact that
the KJV inserts 'LORD' hundreds of times where the Hebrew Jehovah
("Yahweh") appears!
|
3
| A chart on page 17 attempts to show that the new versions
eliminate the name Jesus and simply insert
the pronoun "he." The idea is that
there is an effort to get rid of the name of Jesus. Amazingly Ms. Riplinger,
if ever you have read the NIV (?)
it does use the
name of Jesus in several of the verses you listed! [Luke 24:36, Matthew
4:18, Mark 2:15, Mark 10:52]. Furthermore, the
NIV uses
the name of Jesus over 1100
times
more than it is used in the
KJV! These
simple observations can be seen
by using the complete KJV and NIV exhaustive concordances.
|
4
| On page 19 a chart is found
that claims the new versions place "a new
age" where the KJV affirms "a new
earth." This is in spite of the fact that Revelation 21:1 in the
NIV speaks of a new earth. The same chart claims the new versions use
"fruit of light" for the
"fruit of the Spirit." This, again, in
spite of the fact that Galatians 5:22 speaks of the fruit of the Spirit in
the new versions. In fact, I would
challenge Gail
Riplinger to show me where the KJV speaks of either of these subjects and
the new versions do not.
|
5
| The author attempts to show a conspiracy against the Lord's
prayer at several places in the book, including the bottom of page 19. She
fails to mention, however, that Matthew 6:9-13 does record the complete version
of the prayer in the modern versions! Her claim that it is omitted in the
new versions is simply... NOT
TRUE.
|
6
| On page 20 an especially interesting chart appears in
which it is claimed that the newer versions are attacking the person of Christ.
This chart is so
poor
and so filled with
untruths,
it is difficult to believe the author is
serious!
I affirm that every point found in the KJV is also confirmed
in the new versions. Jesus is called the Lord Jesus Christ, God, Son of God,
Son, Saviour, Alpha and Omega, equal with God, Creator, etc., in the new
versions [Rev 1:18, Phil. 2:6, John 1:1, Romans 9:5, Isaiah 7:14, etc.,
etc.]
|
7
| It is claimed on page 21 that the new versions omit salvation
by grace. I ask the reader to take your pick of the most popular new versions
and look up Ephesians 2:8-9.
From the points I have made, the reader will see that it would be a
tragic error to take seriously
Riplinger's "selectively"-created charts and other fallacious assertions
without examining the quotes and the actual sources. When the
evidence is examined, it becomes obvious
that Riplinger's manuscript is not
compelling and does not establish her claims and ultimate
conclusions such as proving
that new translations are "preparing way for the
Antichrist
and a one world religion."
FAR FROM
IT! Currently, God's Word
is all or partially translated in over 2000
languages! with the NIV translation
now the most read English Bible since 1990.
Can
anyone who has
ever lived show me where
GOD
revealed that
His Word
is
only preserved
in
one
17th Century Elizabethan
English
"translation"...uh, the KJV
?!?
For the Scriptures still say, "No one comes to the Father except through
Me [Jesus speaking] and, if our gospel is veiled, it is
veiled to those who are perishing," and, "I tell you the truth, no one can
see the kingdom of God unless he is born again," and, "whoever believes in
Him [Jesus] is not condemned, but whoever does not believe
stands already condemned because he has not believed in the name of God's
one and only Son" [John 14:6, 2
Corinthians 4:4, John 3:3 and
17 the NIV].
These classic verses emphasizing the absolute necessity of Jesus Christ and
His saving Gospel have not lost their
force in the modern versions!
You would be wise to REJECT this
book and any other
"KJV-Only"
books by Riplinger, Peter
Ruckman, David Otis Fuller,
Samuel Gipp, D. A. Waite,
William Grady, Edward
Hills, Benjamin Wilkerson,
J. J. Ray... and
others.
"The real reason men don't like the author" of New
Age Bible Versions is that "the author is a
woman" (Gail Riplinger)
so says Mrs. Donald
A. Waite in THE BIBLE FOR
TODAY News Report #222
[a
"KJV-Only" ministry
located in Collingswood, NJ]. Mrs. Waite also says Ms. Riplinger
"can't help it! She was
born that way!"
Well, Mrs. Waite... not only was
Ms. Riplinger born a woman, she was also born with a "carnal
nature." She "can't help" that fact,
either; but she is held responsible to "mortify"
the carnal nature [Colossians 3:5, Romans
8:13]. Ms. Riplinger's being born a woman does not give her
a "handicapped" license to "speak
her mind" with impunity. Crying
"I'm a
woman" as a cop-out
from critical review is similar to the "race card" used by some as a excuse
for irresponsible actions.
If Mrs. Waite wants to "defend Gail Riplinger,"
as she proposes, then she would better serve her purpose by presenting substance
rather than smoke. And furthermore, if Mrs. Waite would spend a little time
researching history, she would find that women
such as Riplinger (all "born that way") have
been involved in the spawning of not a few heretical,
cultic religious movements. Being born a woman
does not make one immune to the deceptions of Satan
[Revelations 2:20, Acts
16:16].
The attitude of Mrs. Waite suggests the possibility that she may harbor
resentment of men and the sovereignty of God in
His choice of men as His ministers [1 Timothy
2:11-15]. Her indiscriminate allegation that criticism
of Riplinger's fallacious book is simply due to the fact that Riplinger "is
a woman" smacks of modern "FEMINISM" of the past quarter-century.
Was Mrs. Waite "infected" by the "feminist" propaganda of the "women's
movement"? Or is she just now opting for this "feminist" cop-out
allegation for lack of anything substantial with which to defend
Riplinger... ?